The time period is the age of Anarchy. In my GPC, a situation has come up and I want your opinion and advice. I want to keep thing historically correct.

My queston is can knights swear fealty to a Bishop in this time period, serving him and still be in all repects treated as knights, travelling to Salisbury court and paying homage to Countess Ellen or is fealty something only for the Nobles? If so, what merits and disadvantages might I come to expect from an early form of Knights Templar, during the age of Anarchy.

Historically correct for mid-12th century England for which the Anarchy is based on, technology & society wise, I assume? :) Since in late-5th century Britain, you wouldn't have medieval knights yet.

For 12th century England, yes, sure. You can swear fealty to a Bishop, assuming the Bishop has lands to give or money to support the knights (which would usually be the case, as the bishoprics tended to be wealthy). You wouldn't be a templar, just a knight whose feudal liegelord just happens to be a Bishop. Also, some Bishops doubled as higher landowning nobles, for instance I seem to recall one Bishop who was also the Earl of Kent. Ah, here we go, it was Odo, the half-brother of William the Conqueror.

In Holy Roman Empire, the Bishops very often were landowning magnates alongside of more traditional noblemen. And of course, the bishops personally were often from high-ranking noble families to begin with.

Now, of course if your particular bishop is a stickler for mass and communion and all that rigmarole, his knights might be under a more watchful eye as to their spiritual well-being, but the same could be said of an uncommonly pious temporal nobleman, as well...

As I recall, the Church was historically a major landholder. It wouldn't be at all uncommon for a Bishop to also be a wealthy landholding lord (and historically this was a major point of contention between the English crown and the Church). In many respects there often wouldn't be much practical difference between a baron who was a bishop and one who wasn't. Ideally, of course, the bishop would a pious, educated churchman... but he could just as easily be a lord with a funny haircut.

Assuming the bishop is a pious, educated churchman, he would probably encourage a measure of piety from his vassal knights. A bishop might be an ideal liege for a Religious Knight. Indeed, a bishop-baron of knightly inclination might himself might be represented in game terms as a Religious Knight.

... just my thoughts of course.

Thanks guys, as a follow up, is it possible to change your Fealty from the Countess to the Bishop or is homage the most one can hope for?

As long as the Countess agrees, no problem. Why would she though? Maybe she wants a favor from the Bishop.

Since we're talking Anarchy period, perhaps the Countess wants an alliance with the Bishop. If the Bishop is a wealthy landholder, trading a single knight for the support of a powerful man... especially if he has numerous knights at his command... sounds like a fair exchange. She wins the Bishops favor while at the same time putting a man well disposed to her, and her son, in the Bishop's councils.

The time period is the age of Anarchy. In my GPC, a situation has come up and I want your opinion and advice. I want to keep thing historically correct.
My question is can knights swear fealty to a Bishop in this time period, serving him and still be in all respects treated as knights,

Yes. The bishops are landlords just like the barons are. They have knights, retainers, and holdings of land.


travelling to Salisbury court and paying homage to Countess Ellen or is fealty something only for the Nobles?

Homage may be sworn only to one person. Generally that is whatever lord has ewarded mhim the most. All other lords get oaths of fealty.
BTW, the lord who receives homage also receives fealty.


If so, what merits and disadvantages might I come to expect from an early form of Knights Templar, during the age of Anarchy.

Knights Templar in KAP are the guardians of the Grail.
Just because one has fealty, or homage and fealty, to a bishop does not imply any special holiness at all. None is required, and no benefits are given. Th bishops are vassals to the king, just like the barons.
There ARE Templar Knights even in the Uther Period, but they are a secret organization serving the Grail, not any bishop. They slowly become more visible in GPC.

Thanks guys, as a follow up, is it possible to change your Fealty from the Countess to the Bishop or is homage the most one can hope for?

I think you have fealty and homage confused here.
Homage = ultimate loyalty to a single lord.
Fealty = loyalty, sworn to multiple lords.

Yes, homage can be changed. There is a short legal formula in which a lord releases a vassal from his homage.

To that I would add that Homage and Fealty are introduced and explained at length in the Book of the Estate!


Best,


T.

Thanks guys, as a follow up, is it possible to change your Fealty from the Countess to the Bishop or is homage the most one can hope for?

I think you have fealty and homage confused here.
Homage = ultimate loyalty to a single lord.
Fealty = loyalty, sworn to multiple lords.

Yes, homage can be changed. There is a short legal formula in which a lord releases a vassal from his homage.


Yes, I got them confused. I got them switched. Thanks, I know there is some information about the knights of the grail in the core book, was wondering if more information about the knights templar in Arthurian time will be in a future supplement? You might be interested to here Sir Paul wishes to be the leader of an early form of knights templar but first he must discover the fate of his Father and recover his heirloom holysword lost somewhere in the Sauvage during the Anarchy period. :)

Thanks everyone for for taking the time to answer my questions!