I was rereading Duke Galeholt in the GPC, when I happened to bump into Jarl Ketil of Orkneys, who gets defeated by Duke Galeholt. Duke Galeholt then goes and annexes the Orkney Islands to his 'empire'.

So, who is Jarl Ketil? Clearly, the name (and events) mirror the actual events during the (late) Middle Ages, when the Lords of the Isles expanded their rule at the expense of the Norwegian jarls of Orkney Islands and also their Scottish neighbors. However, how to reconcile this with the Arthurian saga?

Well, here is my suggestion:
1) Jarl Ketil is Queen Margawse's right-hand man, her marshal, so to speak. Thus the guy leading the fleet to the defeat. He is NOT the ruler of Orkneys, but with the fleet defeated, Queen Margawse feels it is better to submit and play for time (see below). That takes care of that.
2) During this time, Gawaine & Arthur are in Milan, fighting the Romans. So they probably won't hear about this until they get home, 528.
3) However, I would have liked to have a note in 528, when Galeholt is in at Pentecost Court, that the issue of the sovereignty of the Orkney Islands is raised. The Queen of those Islands is Gawaine's mother and Arthur's half-sister, after all! With the war starting against Galaholt in 529, I'd probably give the triggering causes in 528, with Arthur demanding that Galeholt relinquishes the Orkney Islands, if he is to be a friend of Arthur's. Galeholt refuses and returns north to prepare for war. He launches the combined assault with the King of Malahaut in the Spring of 529 to gobble up the North before King Arthur's armies can get there to intervene. Arthur gets there soon enough in Summer, though, having summoned his vassals for war for this campaigning season.
4) Galeholt agrees to swear homage to Arthur (and to return the Orkney Islands their independence). Thus, Orkneys are restored, which is not mentioned in the GPC, but I can't see the Orkney Clan sitting with their mouths shut when their ancestral home is conquered.

That's how I intend to GM it once we get there (again, skipped it the first play through due to PKs stumbling on some faerie islands).

Responding to myself seems a bit gauche, but still...

GPC, p. 182, states that the ruler of the Orkney Islands is "King Lot at first, then his wife Margawse,
then by Ketil Flatnose, the Lochlannach chief". However, it says nothing about the timeline, although from the above, we can deduce that Ketil needs to be in power in 526.

However, GPC p. 234 says: "Mordred reappears at court in the year 522, along with the rest of the May Babies, then disappears to his mother Margawse’s home in the Orkneys until he comes to court in 531." Which clearly implies that Margawse is still ruling in the Orkneys.

I think my suggestion in the first post about making Jarl Ketil Margawse's primary nobleman and warlord (and perhaps even her lover) would solve these contradictions neatly. It also explains why the Orkney clan is not raising hell about their Mother being dispossessed of her kingdom.

I think my suggestion in the first post about making Jarl Ketil Margawse's primary nobleman and warlord (and perhaps even her lover) would solve these contradictions neatly. It also explains why the Orkney clan is not raising hell about their Mother being dispossessed of her kingdom.


This is a very fine solution. I have another one to consider:

In The Arthurian Companion, Phyllis Ann Karr speculates that in Arthurian lore, Orkney could mean a larger area in the north ("all Scotland south to Lothian") instead of just the Orkney islands. This would make many Arthurian references to Orkney more rational, and it would solve your Jarl Ketil problem: he rules Orkney while Morgause rules the Orkey Islands.

That would definitely make Galeholt's conquest of Orkneys much more impressive and explain why he gives Arthur such a headache while the latter fights him. However, it is clear in the GPC context that Orkneys that Galeholt conquers are the Orkney Islands, not whole of Scottish highlands. Not to mention that his 'Sea Duchy' is very maritime based, being the recreation of the Lords of the Isles in the KAP (in my opinion). Thus, they conquer the Norse-settled Orkneys, which is what would happen in 'real history' during Middle Ages, projected back to Arthurian age. Which is why there needs to be a Jarl Ketil of the Orkneys...

Beyond the Wall also established several named kingdoms in Northern Caledonia. There is a note that Caithness is a vassal of the Orkney Islands, but it has its own named King and Queen, too. Of course, in Beyond the Wall, Orkney Islands is a powerful kingdom, enough so to enable King Lot to conquer Lothian, and feared by its neighbors thanks to Margawse's magic and Faerie allies. Who of course are totally absent while Galeholt gobbles the islands up. We know that Margawse is still alive in 526, since she dies about two decades later. So clearly, there are two competing storylines here:

Beyond the Wall: Orkneys is a powerful kingdom, backed up by its Sorcerous Queen.

GPC: Galeholt kicks out the insignificant northern Jarl and conquers the windswept, marginal island kingdom, as a parallel to the historical Lords of the Isles.

As you can see, the power and prestige of Orkneys changes dramatically here. I guess you could explain it by having Margawse leave Orkneys in the early/mid 520s, and have Jarl Ketil be an usurper. Thus, deprived of magical allies and possibly a chunk of the knights in Margawse's employ (and the losses taken in the coup), Jarl Ketil falls 'easily' to Galeholt. Of course, then you'd have to explain how Margawse lost all that power herself, rather than snuffing Ketil out. Possibilities are of course:

1) Treachery: no matter how great a Witch, you can't do much if you are surprised in your bedchamber, gagged and bundled up in cold iron, and dumped into a cell. But this has a problem with Mordred's and her survival. Unless they are hostages to ensure that the Orkney Brothers don't just bring an army over and kick Ketil's ass? And after 526, the two remain as Galeholt's closely guarded guests? Might also explain why Mordred is as conniving as he is: it is a survival tactic, and his hunger for power is that he will never be a helpless victim again. I sorta like this explanation, to be honest. Especially if Jarl Ketil waits until the older Orkney Brothers are fighting on the mainland: they probably wouldn't even hear about it until they return around 528. At which point, they can start agitating for Arthur to move against Galeholt, which he does in 529.

In this scenario, Galeholt sees the chance with the Orkney in confusion in Jarl Ketil's usurpation, and invades. He can even pose as Margawse's rescuer, and we know that the Queen does have a thing for big, handsome, glorious chivalric knights. Galeholt's married status poses no problems whatsoever! (Galeholt's later attachment to Lancelot might, though.)

2) Circumstances: With Mordred's return in 522, Margawse travels south to pick her son up. Meanwhile Jarl Ketil organizes a coup, killing Margawse's loyal knights and destroying her grimoires etc. Margawse spends 522-31 in Lothian or Caithness, raising Mordred and waiting for a chance to regain her kingdom, which she would after Galeholt surrenders to Arthur?

Pure brilliance once again Morien! I would certainly use much of that if we haven't passed that timeframe already. Oh well, in the *next* campaign then :P