One of my new Player Knights has married a wife who brought her own lands to the marriage.

I'm tempted to make the wife a lady from Silchester.

What non-economic obligations would that now place upon the Knight? Does he own any allegiance to Silchester?

Most marriages will be arranged in-house. A knight asks his lord for permission to marry, and usually the lord arranges a marriage from within his own lands.

That said, marriages across boundaries do occur, and when this happens, the knight owes the other lord knight service for those lands. So if it was a 2-manor estate, he would be required to supply 2 knights when called for knight service. Plus he is expected to provide counsel like any other vassal, and hospitality when called. he'll also have to roll a loyalty to the new lord.

This presents a natural conflict, and also serious problems if the Duke of Silchester and the knight's other lord ever go to war. In theory, the knight could satisfy his feudal obligations by giving each the knights they are obligated to. In practice, both will probably expect the knight to throw their lot completely with one side, and he'll probably lose the lands in the other lord's domain. (At least, until he can win them back in later adventuring and politicking.)

Oh it's most definitely an arranged marriage, which is why Silchester has popped into my head with the Earl trying to tie the two counties together somewhat despite his feud with Levcomagus.

I'll be having the Knight pay the lord of wherever the wife comes from money so as to fund a Knight for that manor, I think that £4 is the figure that's been banded around to support a household Knight.

The loyalty thing and it only really coming to a head if Silchester and Salisbury fall out all sound very easily workable and interesting so thanks for that.

I'll be having the Knight pay the lord of wherever the wife comes from money so as to fund a Knight for that manor, I think that £4 is the figure that's been banded around to support a household Knight.

If it's a late period, that sounds reasonable. It's a nice, simple way to handle it too. £4 is the cost to support a bachelor knight, but in another thread, Greg has stated that £6 is the scutage price so that might be better.
If it's an early period, I would consider this approach, if it's not too complicated for your campaign:

First, let's say the knight has 3 manors from Salisbury, with an obligation to support 2 knights.
And he has 2 manors from Silchester, also with an obligation to supply 2 knights.
Each year, he will be called to attend each lord's winter court to provide counsel - and may send a proxy or claim he is unable to attend for whatever reason. Each lord will be taking careful note over which one he favours...
Then when each lord calls for assistance, he is obligated to provide the knights above. Though each will hint that he could supply 2-3 extra to show his loyalty - or a canny political knight could use his ability to supply more than that required by feudal obligation as leverage to get some advantages and win favour.

In most games, the winter court, and lord calling for assistance, are background events, occurring infrequently and the same should be true here, but it can add an interesting dimension to play if not overdone.

If it's a late period, that sounds reasonable. It's a nice, simple way to handle it too. £4 is the cost to support a bachelor knight, but in another thread, Greg has stated that £6 is the scutage price so that might be better.
If it's an early period, I would consider this approach, if it's not too complicated for your campaign:


I've done it before with £6 payable to the country for each manor that the player Knight holds and doesn't actually have a Knight for. From the Lord's point of view this works pretty well as he has a household Knight funded that he can keep pretty firmly in his pocket politics wise and the Knight funding this could also be called on in a pinch.

However even in normal times the £6 was quite a burden and once the Anarchy period began with tribute payable as well things became really hard. A bit too hard for my liking, I like the players feeling the hardship and desperation of the times but there are limits. So £4 seems both justifiable and also provides sufficient hardship.



In most games, the winter court, and lord calling for assistance, are background events, occurring infrequently and the same should be true here, but it can add an interesting dimension to play if not overdone.


Quick question on the side....

I've normally played it that Winter Court is only really attendable if it's close to Salisbury, the Winter proving too much of an obstacle to long distance travel.

Is the Royal Winter Court as compulsory as the Easter Court is?

Is the Royal Winter Court as compulsory as the Easter Court is?


I would say it is.

...when each lord calls for assistance, he is obligated to provide the knights above.

Question: What if a knight has another manor in different county, and that county falls to the Saxons. An example would be Hertford or Huntington falling to the Angles in 501 (GPC). In this case:

What happens to the knight's manor? Is it occupied by the Angles?
What kind of obligation does the knight have to his new Angle "lord"?
Does this manor still bring in revenue for the knight?
If the Angles retreat from this county, what repercussions does this have for the manor?

Depends on if they are an occupying force or not. If they are:

1) The Knight's manor is more than likely seized (assuming the county is overrun).
2) None. The manor is not his anymore, nor (and more importantly) he did not swear fealty to this new overlord and thus has no obligations to him. If this was his only manor, the Knight would be effectively landless and a mercenary knight (if his lord couldn't support him).
3) Nope.
4) Its probably in ruins. If this was just an extended smash and grab run by the Saxons, then the old Earl still demands service from the Knight and the Knight's feudal obligations are still intact. "Good luck rebuilding!" in other words. :)




Question: What if a knight has another manor in different county, and that county falls to the Saxons. An example would be Hertford or Huntington falling to the Angles in 501 (GPC). In this case:

What happens to the knight's manor? Is it occupied by the Angles?
What kind of obligation does the knight have to his new Angle "lord"?
Does this manor still bring in revenue for the knight?
If the Angles retreat from this county, what repercussions does this have for the manor?

Question: What if a knight has another manor in different county, and that county falls to the Saxons. An example would be Hertford or Huntington falling to the Angles in 501 (GPC). In this case:

What happens to the knight's manor? Is it occupied by the Angles?


Yes.



What kind of obligation does the knight have to his new Angle "lord"?


None. He has seized it and taken it away from you , your lord and your family. Want it back? Go get it.



Does this manor still bring in revenue for the knight?


No.



If the Angles retreat from this county, what repercussions does this have for the manor?


It depends on how long it's been occupied, who liberates it, and what subsequent claims are put on it.
Think of it this way:
Your knights clear out a nest of Saxons and claim the manors, and then some knights come in and claim the lands because they had been owners, or ought to have been owners.

--Greg[/list]